Education Paper III UGC-NET June 2014

UGC NET June 2014 Paper III Education

1. Rationalism was a movement which advocated
(A) A faith in the power of unaided reason
(B) The reconciliation of Church dogmas with new science.
(C) The substitution of Aristotelian authority for the Church.
(D) None of the above
Answer: - (A) A faith in the power of unaided reason

2. The educative experience is desirable to the
(A) Pragmatist, only if, on the whole it is acceptable to the pupil.
(B) Realist, only if it is pleasurable and practical for the pupil.
(C) Idealist only if it is effective in attaining immediate goals.
(D) Reconstructionist, only if it helps the pupil earns a living.
Answer: - (A) Pragmatist, only if, on the whole it is acceptable to the pupil.

3. Which of the following is not an aim of education according to Jain Philosophy?
(A) Samyak J.nana (Right knowledge)    
(B) Samyak Samkalpa (Right determination)
(C) Samyak Darshan (Right faith)
(D) Samyak Charitra (Right conduct)
Answer:- (B) Samyak Samkalpa (Right determination)

4. Stratification in society is based on
(A) Power, Property and Prestige
(B) Culture, Caste and Class
(C) Education, Learning and Empowerment
(D) Motivation, Mobility and Material possession
Answer: - (A) Power, Property and Prestige
                  (B) Culture, Caste and Class

5. Social change is a change in
(A) Social Relationships
(B) Social Achievement
(C) Social Values
(D) Civilization
Answer: - (A) Social Relationships

6. In socialization, the teacher should play the role of
(A) An agent
(B) An administrator
(C) A counsellor
(D) All of the above
Answer: - (A) An agent

7. The real carriers of heredity are
(A) The Chromosomes
(B) The Genes
(C) The Nucleus of the cell
(D) DNA
Answer: - (B) the Genes

8. Social development is essentially a matter of
(A) Conformity to the demands of the social order
(B) Achievement of social security and acceptance
C) Integration of one’s purposes with those of the social order
(D) The development of social skills
Answer: - C) Integration of one’s purposes with those of the social order

9. Which of the following best describes the process of growth and development?
(A) It is entirely physical and physiological.
(B) It is pre determined by heredity. 
(C) All of its aspects are highly inter-related.
(D) It is essentially an individual phenomenon, different from person to person.
Answer: - (C) All of its aspects are highly inter-related.

10. Structure of Intellect (SI model) is evolved by
(A) Thurstone
(B) Guilford
(C) Spearman
 (D) Gardner
Answer: - (B) Guilford

11. An intelligent child is characterised by
(A) Creative and Divergent thinking
(B) Critical and convergent thinking
(C) Critical, creative and convergent thinking
(D) All of the above
Answer: - (B) Critical and convergent thinking

12. Constructivist learning is advocated by
(A) Jean Piaget
(B) Leu Vygotsky
(C) B.F. Skinner
(D) Kohler
Answer: - (B) Leu Vygotsky

13. Eysenck measured personality based on
(A) Type and Traits
(B) Type only
(C) Traits only
(D) None of the above
Answer:- (A) Type and Traits

14. ‘Humanist theory’ of personality is advocated by
(A) McDougal
(B) Maslow
(C) Rogers
(D) Guilford
Answer: - (B) Maslow
                 (C) Rogers

15. Match the following in List – I with that of List – II in the correct order:
    List – I                List – II
 a. Freud          i. Directive counselling
b. Williamson   ii. Free Association
c. Rogers         iii. Free wheeling
d. Gordon         iv. Non-directive counselling
                          v. Eclectic counselling
Codes:
        a       b        c        d
(A)   i         iii        iv       v
(B)   ii        i          v        iv
(C)   ii        i          iv       iii
(D)   iii       ii          i         v
Answer:-  (C)   ii     i     iv    iii

16. When working with children with disabilities it is important for the counsellor to enhance school based services by doing so, the counsellor is taking on the role of
(A) Investigator
(B) Collaborator
(C) Psychologist
(D) Coordinator
Answer: - (B) Collaborator

17. The psychotherapeutic method of guidance involves in:
(A) Emphasizes the use of the cumulative record
(B) Supports the giving of advice to the counselee
(C) Places confidence in the pupils ability to solve his/her own problems
(D) Is the destructive method of counselling pupils?
Answer: - (C) Places confidence in the pupils ability to solve his/her own problems

18. In counselling with pupil, a teacher should
(A) Plan to do most of the talking
(B) Establish rapport with the pupil
(C) Refrain from giving him information
(D) Assume responsibility for solving his problems.
Answer: - (B) Establish rapport with the pupil
                                  
19. In experimental research hypothesis are formulated
(A) Before the experiment.
(B) During the experiment.
(C) After the experiment.
(D) None of these.
Answer: - (A) Before the experiment.

20. Type-I error, in the testing of a null hypothesis, occurs when the researcher
(A) Rejects it when it is true
(B) Accepts it when it is false
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: - (A) Rejects it when it is true

21. Which of the following is wrong? Hypothesis can be formulated using
(A) The established theories.
(B) The findings of previous research.
(C) Experience of the researcher.
(D) The results of the same study.
Answer: - (D) The results of the same study.

22. A researcher conducted three experiments with 100 subjects each following uniform esign instead of one experiment with 300 subjects. This is known as
(A) Replication
(B) Manipulation
(C) Observation
(D) Validation
Answer: - (A) Replication


23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of naturalistic inquiry?
(A) Data Triangulation
(B) Prolonged stay in the field
(C) Both (A) and (B)   
(D) Quantification of results
Answer: - (D) Quantification of results 

24. Internal criticism of historical data refers to
(A) Establish authenticity of data source
(B) Establish validity of the contents of data
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: - (B) Establish validity of the contents of data

25. The mid day meal programme for pre-schools initiated with a view to
(A) Increase enrolment
(B) Involve community
(C) Engage teachers
(D) Increase the employment
Answer: - (A) Increase enrolment


26. The official organ of the U.S. Office of education is
(A) School News
(B) School Life
(C) The Educator
(D) School and Society
Answer:- (B) School Life


27. The main agency engaged in vocationalization of education in U.S.A.
(A) Private Enterprise System
(B) U.S. Department of Labour
(C) Formal Education System
(D) All of the above
Answer: - (D) All of the above


28. The core-curriculum does not emphasize
(A) Democratic procedures
(B) Problem solving
(C) A well defined body of subject matter
(D) Integration of different subject matter
Answer: - (B) Problem solving


29. The core curriculum consist of the
(A) Subject matter children must learn in school
(B) Subject offered by the school authorities
(C) Total experiences in the school programme
(D) Unit and lesson plans prep. By the teachers
Answer: - (C) Total experiences in the school programme


30. A curriculum maker interested in designing a functional curriculum would need an understanding of
(A) Educational philosophy
(B) Psychological principles
(C) Pedagogical procedures
(D) All of the above
Answer: - (D) All of the above


31. Who initiated the Bureaucratic approach in the field of administration?
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) M.Weber
(C) Mary Parker
(D) Elton Mayo
Answer: - (B) M.Weber


32. Educational planning relates to
(A) Choosing the best course of action for achieving the educational objectives.
(B) Recruitment of teachers.
(C) Checking the performance is in conformity with laid down standards.
(D) Motivating the subordinates.
Answer: - (A) Choosing the best course of action for achieving the educational objectives.


33. A school supervisor has responsibility to
(A) Help the school in its development.
(B) Observe the classroom teaching and suggest improvements if required.
(C) Develop the teaching-learning material.
(D) All of the above
Answer:- (D) All of the above


34. Which of the following statements has been advocated under Human Relation Approach?
(A) Human beings do more work if their supervisors are strict.
(B) Human being attach importance to good interpersonal relations.
(C) Money is the only key motivation for human beings.
(D) None of the above
Answer:- (B) Human being attach importance to good interpersonal relations.


35. Which of the following is not the source of Educational Finance?
(A) Public Funds
(B) Local Bodies Fund
(C) Education cess
(D) Relief Fund
Answer:- (D) Relief Fund


36. Which of the following is not the technique of supervisor?
(A) School visits
(B) Surprise visits
(C) Annual visits
(D) Excursion visits
Answer:- (D) Excursion visits


37. The Father of Scientific Management Approach is
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) St. Etienne
(D) W. Willson
Answer:- (A) F.W. Taylor


38. Who defined planning as “Deciding in advance what to do, how to do it, whom to do it and when to do it”?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Koontz
(D) F. Taylor
Answer:- (C) Koontz


39. For effective results, the educational supervisor should follow which of the following approaches?
(A) Team Approach
(B) Modern Approach
(C) Traditional Approach
(D) Administrative Approach
Answer:- (A) Team Approach


40. Teachers often put questions to students during and/or immediately after teaching a lesson so as to assess their learning and thereby to proceed to the next lesson. This an example of
(A) Summative evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation
(C) Concurrent evaluation
(D) Diagnostic evaluation
Answer:- (B) Formative evaluation


41. Teacher Eligibility Test conducted for selection of candidates for admission into teacher education institution is an example of
(A) Placement test
(B) Aptitude test
(C) Attitude test
(D) Achievement test
Answer:- (B) Aptitude test


42. The examination conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBCE) can be categorized as
(A) Norm Referenced Test
(B) Criterion Referenced Test
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: - (A) Norm Referenced Test


43. Which of the following types of tools is most appropriate to assess one’s interest in a particular phenomenon?
(A) Questionnaire
(B) Scale
(C) Test
(D) Inventory
Answer: - (D) Inventory


44. Which of the following is not related to item analysis?
(A) Item difficulty index
(B) Item discrimination index
(C) Reliability coefficient
(D) Sensitivity of item to instructional effects
Answer: - (C) Reliability coefficient


45. Miss Reema obtained grades in the subjects as follows in a 5 point scales: English – A; athematics – B; Science – D and Social Sciences – A. Her Grade Point Average (GPA) will be
(A) 5      (B) 3
(C) 4     (D) 3.5
Answer: - (C) 4     


46. Which of the following is not related to analysis of qualitative data?
(A) Axial coding
(B) Meta Analysis
(C) Rich thick description
(D) Writing memos
Answer:- (B) Meta Analysis


47. The formula for calculation of Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is
   


Answer:-    



48. Norms are developed for the psychological tests at the time of their
(A) Translation
(B) Construction
(C) Standardization
(D) Administration
Answer:- (C) Standardization


49. “Education Technology is the application of modern skills and techniques to the requirements of Education and Training.” This was stated by
(A) Unwin
(B) T. Sakamato
(C) Leith
(D) Saetter
Answer: - (A) Unwin


50. The important concept for developing the understanding and skills of teaching and training is
(A) Planning
(B) Demonstration
(C) Evaluation
(D) Task Analysis
Answer: - (D) Task Analysis


51. Which is not true of interactive video?
(A) Presentation of video pictures
(B) Presentation of CAI materials
(C) Use of principles of programmed instruction
(D) Learning becomes meaningful rather than instructional
Answer: - (C) Use of principles of programmed instruction


52. What is the verbal component of a poster?
(A) Visual
(B) Caption
(C) Pictorial
(D) All of the above
Answer: - (B) Caption


53. External programmed instruction is also known as
(A) Linear programmed instruction
(B) Internal programmed instruction
(C) Interpretive programmed instruction
(D) Crowderian programmed instruction
Answer: - (A) Linear programmed instruction


54. Which of the following is not a component of basic teaching model?
(A) Instructional objectives
(B) Instructional procedures
(C) Instructional assessment
(D) Performance assessment
Answer: - (C) Instructional assessment


55. Match Column – A with Column – B:
Column – A          Column – B
a. Audio-visual     i. Software
    aids
b. Behaviour        ii. Hardware
     technology
c. Programmed   iii. Management
    instruction
    technology
d. Training           iv. System analysis
    psychology
                            v. Internet
Codes:
(A) a and i
 (B) a and ii
(C) c and iv
 (D) d and i
Answer:- (B) a and ii


56. Which of the following element contributes to educational achievement of distance learners?
(A) Student assignment response
(B) Course material
(C) Personal contact programme
(D) All of the above
Answer:- (D) All of the above


57. Which of the following statement is incorrect about microteaching?
(A) It is a method of teaching.
(B) It consists of core teaching skills.
(C) Each skill is practised separately.
(D) Questioning is one component of microteaching.
Answer:- (A) It is a method of teaching.


58. Most important challenge in teaching a resource teacher is
(A) Identification and assessment of the disabled children
(B) Teaching plus curricular activities
(C) Sensitization of public, parents and peer groups.
(D) Establishing resource room and supplying assistive devices.
Answer:- (B) Teaching plus curricular activities


59. According to Rehabilitation Council of India, teacher-pupil ratio in teaching for the visually impaired children in a integrated education programme is
(A) 1: 10     (B) 1: 8
(C) 1: 6       (D) 1: 1
Answer:- (B) 1: 8


60. In List – I the name of the National and International Acts, declarations are given and in List – II year regarding the Declarations and Acts are given. Match the List – I with List – II in correct order:
List – I                          List – II
a.  International            i. 1990
     Year of the
      Disabled People
      (IYDP)
b.  World Conference   ii. 1992
      on Education for
      All (EFA)
c.  Pupil with                 iii. 1995
     Disabilities
    Act (PWD)
d.  Rehabilitation          iv. 1981
     Council of India
     Act  (RCI)
                                     v. 1986
Codes:
       a      b     c        d
(A)  ii       i      iii       v
(B)  iii      ii      iv       i
(C)  iv       i      iii      ii
(D)   i       iii     iv      ii
Answer:- (C)  iv  i   iii   ii


61. “There are three preventive activities, received from public regarding mentally retarded children.” Which of the following is incorrect one?
(A) Providing necessary advertisement through National Institute for Mentally Retarded Children.
(B) Dissemination of available knowledge on ecology of mentally retarded through public media like newspapers, radio, television etc.
(C) To bring together the parents and the interested person or public to mobilize their efforts to channalise funds and family.
(D) Strengthening National level organizations to coordinate and disseminate the efforts.
Answer:- (A) Providing necessary advertisement through National Institute for Mentally Retarded Children.


62. The children with disabilities studying along with normal children in a least restrictive environment programme assisted by a resource teacher is known as
(A) Special School Programme
(B) Integrated Education Programme
(C) Inclusive Education Programme
(D) None of the above
Answer:- (B) Integrated Education Programme


63. Legal Blindness is defined as
 (A) 20/180 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction
(B) 20/70 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction
(C) 20/200 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction
(D) 20/100 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction
Answer:-  (C) 20/200 visual acuity in the better eye after best correction


64. Apex body for the hearing impaired in India is
(A) Teacher training centre of little flower convent
(B) Rehabilitation Council of India
(C) The All India Institute of Speech and Hearing
(D) Ali Yavar Jung National Institute for the Hearing Handicapped
Answer:- (D) Ali Yavar Jung National Institute for the Hearing Handicapped
                                                        

65. The most important challenge in Rehabilitation intervention programme is
(A) Maintaining the full mobility or range of movement of the joints.
(B) Improving the muscle power in the affected limbs.
(C) Restoring the function of the affected limb by appropriate training.
(D) Providing splints or callipers if needed.
Answer: - (A) Maintaining the full mobility or range of movement of the joints.


66. Match the following List – I with List – II in correct order:
      List – I                        List – II
a. Weakness of         i. Monopolegia
    one half of body   
b. Weakness of         ii. Paraplegia
    one limb                        
c. Weakness of         iii. Hemiplegia
    all four limbs
    including trunk  
d. Weakness of         iv. Quadriple
    both lower limbs                     
                                  v. Diabetic
Codes:
          a       b      c      d
(A)     ii        i      iii      v
(B)     iii       i      iv      ii
(C)     i        ii      iii      v
(D)     iv      iii      i       ii
Answer:- (B)    iii    i    iv    ii


67. “Destiny of India is being shaped in her classroom.” This is stated in
(A) Education Commission (1964- 1966)
(B) National Policy on Education (1986)
(C) National Knowledge Commission (2005)
(D) University Education Commission (1948-49)
Answer:- (A) Education Commission (1964- 1966)


68. National Education Day is observed on Nov.-11 every year in memory of
(A) Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:- (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad


69. ‘Accreditation’ of Teacher Education Institution is done by
(A) NCERT
(B) NCTE
(C) NAAC
(D) NUEPA
Answer:- (C) NAAC


70. Integrated Teacher Education Programmes are offered by
(A) Self-financing colleges of Education
(B) Open Universities in India
(C) State Institutes of Education
(D) Regional Institutes of Education
Answer:- (D) Regional Institutes of Education


71. Match the following:
       List – I                   List – II
a. Personalised             i. Keller
   System of Education      
b. Cone of                     ii. Edgar Dale
     Experience
c. Programmes             iii. Herbart
    Instruction
d. Didactic Apparatus   iv. Skinner
                                      v. Crowder
Codes:
            a      b      c     d
(A)       i      ii       iv     v
(B)      iii      i       iv      ii
(C)      ii       i       iv      iii
(D)      iv     iii       ii       v
Answer:-  (A)    i    ii   iv   v


72. The most important single factor of success for a teacher in the beginning of teaching career is
(A) Personality and ability to adjust to classroom
(B) Positive attitude and outlook towards life
(C) Verbal fluency and organizational ability
(D) Competence and professional ethics
Answer:- (A) Personality and ability to adjust to classroom


73. When the children become mischievous and disobedient in the classroom, the teacher should examine
(A) Home background of the students
(B) Influence of outside elements in class
(C) Teaching methods and subject knowledge
(D) Co-curricular and other attractions in the school
Answer:- (C) Teaching methods and subject knowledge


74. Teachers working with children with disabilities must register their names with
(A) NCTE
(B) RIE
(C) NCERT
 (D) RCI
Answer:- (D) RCI


75. Task analysis in teaching requires
(A) Content and Pedagogy
(B) Technology and Evaluation
(C) Both (A) and (B)   
(D) None of these
Answer:- (C)   Both (A) and (B)