UGC NET June - 2013 Paper I
1. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark
Bee-Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
Answer: (D) Wisdom
2. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T
Answer: (B) Sister-in-law
3. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
Answer: (B) Persuasive
4. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
5. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) Unity in human nature.
(B) Integrity in human nature.
(C) Uniformity in human nature.
(D) Harmony in human nature.
Answer: (C) Uniformity in human nature.
Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 6 to 11:
Area under Major Horticulture Crops (in lakh hectares)
Total Horticulture Area
6. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture?
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07
(B) 2006-07 & 2008-09
(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09
(D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
Answer: (D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
7. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively:
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 perctent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
Answer: (A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
8. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(D) Total horticulture
Answer: (C) Flowers
9. Find out the horticultural crops that have recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10.
Answer: (B) Vegetables
10. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007-08?
(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
Answer: (B) 68 percent
11. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
Answer: (A) 2006-07
12. ‘www’ stands for
(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web
Answer: (C) world wide web
13. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
Answer: (B) Sectors
14. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine languages is called a/an
Answer: (D) Interpreter
15. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
Answer: (A) 1024 Megabytes
16. A Compiler is a software which converts
(A) characters to bits
(B) high level language to machine language
(C) machine language to high level language
(D) words to bits
Answer: (B) high level language to machine language
17. Virtual memory is
(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
Answer: (C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.
18. The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the context of
(A) tragic even related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.
Answer: (C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
19. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
Answer: (C) Climate change
20. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
Answer: (A) Transport sector
(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
Answer: (B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
22. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
Answer: (D) Droughts and Floods
23. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(D) < 1%
Answer: (C) 10-12%
24. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Women students
Answer: (A) OBC students
25. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
Answer: (D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
26. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (C) Both the arguments are strong.
27. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
(I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A) Only argument (I) is strong.
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4) He can be removed for proven misbehaviors or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (D) 1 and 4
29. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (C) The Prime Minister
30. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for
(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself.
Answer: (C) Writing the important and notable points
31. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) Self study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(D) Blended learning
Answer: (C) e-learning
(D) Blended learning
32. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
Answer: (D) can deal with children with love and affection.
33. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning
Answer: (D) Conditioned-reflex learning
34. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
Answer: (B) commands respect from students.
35. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too much in the class.
Answer: (C) use teaching aids in the class.
36. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
Answer: (C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
37. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favor even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
Answer: (B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
38. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answer: (C) Quota Sampling
39. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Answer: (D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
40. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Answer: (D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
41. A working hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Answer: (C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (42 to 47):
The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 meters. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, market, serials and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. in contemporary texis, it is generally called simply the illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).
Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Buhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that the provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.
42. Marble stone used for the construction of te Taj Mahal was brought from te ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
Answer: (B) Makrana
43. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah Jahan
(D) European travellers
Answer: (D) European travellers
44. Point out the true statement from the following:
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quatered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the “Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal”.
Answer: (C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quatered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
45. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
Answer: (D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
46. The Construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632-1636 A.D.
(B) 1630-1643 A.D.
(C) 1632-1643 A.D.
(D) 1636-1643 A.D.
Answer: (C) 1632-1643 A.D.
47. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) Farman
48. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order?
(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
Answer: (C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
49. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
Answer: (B) James Augustus Hicky
50. Press censorsip in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
Answer: (C) Indira Gandhi
51. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(B) Interactive communication
(C) Developmental communication
Answer: (B) Interactive communication
52. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
Answer: (B) Edutainment
53. __________________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.
Answer: (B) Empathy
54. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
Answer: (A) UJHFS
55. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
Answer: (B) 10
56. The missing number in the series
40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
Answer: (B) 270
57. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
Answer: (C) 33
58. The mean of four numbers a,b,c,d is 100. IF c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
Answer: (D) 110
59. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increased by
Answer: (D) 50%
60. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true. Choose the correct code given below:
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest.
(iv) All men are dishonest.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)