UGC NET June 2014 Paper-I

UGC NET June-2014 Paper - I

1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short Circuit

(B) Contradiction

(D) Entropy

Answer: (D) Entropy

2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of

(A) Technological theory

(B) Dispersion theory

(D) Information theory

Answer: (D) Information theory

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on

(A) Karan Johar

(B) Amir Khan

(D) Gulzar

Answer: (D) Gulzar

4. Photographs are not easy to

(A) Publish

(B) Secure

(D) Change

Answer: (C) Decode

5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as

(A) Sparks

(B) Green Dots

(D) Rain Drops

Answer: (C) Snow

6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is

(A) Noise

(B) Audience

(D) Feedback

Answer: (D) Feedback

7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs 7, Rs 8, Rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is

(A) 19

(B) 20

(D) 29

Answer: (A) 19

8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?

(A) OMESUCEM

(B) OMESICSM

(D) OMESISCM

Answer: (C) OMESICEM

9. lf the series 4,5,8,13,14,17,22,........ is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?

(A) 31

(B) 32

(D) 35

Answer: (C) 33

10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP: ..:........by choosing one of the following option given :

(A) TS

(B) ST

(D) SR

Answer: (A) TS

11. A man started walking frorn his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left walked 5 Km after. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?

(A) 3 km

(B) 4 km

(D) 6 km

Answer: (C) 5 km

12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written?

(A) 32

(B) 36

(D) 38

Answer: (A) 32

13. "lf a large diamond is cut up into little bits it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers. It loses its strength." The argument put above may be called as

(A) Analogical

(B) Deductive

(D) Casual

Answer: (A) Analogical

14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.

(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.

(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.

(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment

Answer: (C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.

15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but cannot both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called

(A) contradictory

(B) contrary

(D) subaltern

Answer: (C) subcontrary

16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).

Premises:

(a) All dogs are mammals.

(b) No cats are dogs.

Conclusions:

(i) No cats are mammals

(ii) Some cats are mammals.

(iii) No Dogs are cats

(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.

Codes:

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (C) (iii) and (iv)

17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each of Indians. The circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians. p,q,r,s... represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.

(A) q and s only

(B) s only

(D) p, q and s only

Answer: (B) s only

Read the following table and answer question no 18-22 based on table

Year	Government Canals	Private Canals	Tanks	Tube wells and other wells	Other sources	Total
1997-98	17117	211	2593	32090	3102	55173
1998-99	17093	212	2792	33988	3326	57411
1999-00	16842	194	2535	34623	2915	57109
2000-01	15748	203	2449	33796	2880	55076
2001-02	15031	209	2179	34906	4347	56672
2002-03	13863	206	1802	34250	3657	53778
2003-04	14444	206	1908	35779	4281	56618
2004-05	14696	206	1727	34785	7453	58867
2005-06	15268	207	2034	35372	7314	60196

18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?

(A) Government Canals

(B) Private Canals

(D) Other Sources

Answer: (C) Tanks

19. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.

(A) Government Canals

(B) Tanks

(D) Other Sources

Answer: (D) Other Sources

20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?

(A) 1998-99

(B) 2000-01

(D) 2005-06

Answer: (D) 2005-06

21. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.

(A) Government Canals

(B) Private Canals

(D) Other sources

Answer: (A) Government Canals

22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?

(A) 1998-99

(B) 2000-01

(D) 2004-05

23. The acronym FTP stands for

(A) File Transfer Protocol

(B) Fast Transfer Protocol

(D) File Transfer Procedure

Answer: (A) File Transfer Protocol

24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?

(A) PNG

(B) GIF

(D) GUI

Answer: (D) GUI

25. The first Web Browser is

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Netscape

(D) Firefox

Answer: (C) World Wide Web

26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by

(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(D) TCP

Answer: (B) ROM

27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?

(A) MAC address

(B) Hardware address

(D) IP address

Answer: (D) IP address

28. Identify the IP address from the following

(A) 300 .215.317.3

(B) 302.215@417.5

(D) 202-50-20-148

Answer: (C) 202.50.20.148

29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be

(A) 54 million metric tons

(B) 540 million metric tons

(D) 2400 million metric tons

Answer: *

[Note: This is wrong question and UGC given full Marks to all the Candidates]

30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times?

(A) Paris

(B) London

(D) Beijing

Answer: (D) Beijing

31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is

(A) run-off urban areas

(B) run-off from agricultural forms

(D) industrial effluents

Answer: (C) sewage effluents

32. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of material

(B) strong winds

(D) strong wind and water waves

Answer: (A) eruption of large amount of material

33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by

(A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC

(B) 2.0 oC to 3.5 oC

(D) 0.25 oC to 0.5 oC

Answer: (A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC

34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of

(A) Environment

(B) Water Resources

(D) Defence

Answer: (C) Home Affairs

35. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List - II

(a) Flood (1) Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration

(b) Drought (2) Tremors produced by the passage

of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth

substances come out

(d) Valcano (4) Excess rain and uneven

distribution of water

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 3 1 2

Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3

36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere?

(A) Chlorofluorocarbon

(B) Carbon dioxide

(D) Nitrous oxide

Answer: (C) Methane

37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

(i) Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.

(ii) India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.

(iii) The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.

(iv) The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (iv)

Answer: *

[Note: This is wrong question and UGC given full Marks to all the Candidates]

38. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the planning Commission?

(A) Chairman

(B) Deputy Chairman

(D) Member Secretary

Answer: (B) Deputy Chairman

39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(D) Residuary Powers

Answer: (C) Concurrent List

40. Which of the following are Central Universities?

1. Pondicherry University

2. Vishwa Bharati

3. H.N.B. Garhwal University

4. Kurukshetra University

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

41. Consider the statement which ls followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).

Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.

Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.

(ii) No; it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.

Codes:

(A) Only argument (i) is strong.

(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer: (A) Only argument (i) is strong.

42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?

(A) Assam University

(B) Delhi University

(D) Pondicherry University

Answer: (B) Delhi University

43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?

1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.

2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.

3. President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.

4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum attendance of the students

(D) Students taking notes

Answer: (A) Students asking questions

45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture

(B) Discussion

(D) Narration

Answer: (C) Demonstration

46. Dyslexia is associated with

(A) mental disorder

(B) behavioural disorder

(D) writing disorder

Answer: (C) reading disorder

47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to

(A) INFLIBNET

(B) Consortium for Educational Communication

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

Answer: (B) Consortium for Educational Communication

48. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective

(B) cognitive

(D) selective

Answer: (C) affective

49. Who among the following propounded the concept of paradigm?

(A) Peter Haggett

(B) Von Thunen

(D) John K. Wright

Answer: (C) Thomas Kuhn

50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in

(A) The appendix

(B) A separate chapter

(D) The text itself

Answer: (D) The text itself

51. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation

(B) a fact

(D) a discussion

Answer: (C) an assertion

52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as

(A) positive paradigm

(B) critical paradigm

(D) interpretative paradigm

Answer: (D) interpretative paradigm

53. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?

(A) Simple Random

(B) Purposive

(D) Stratified

Answer: (B) Purposive

54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.

(A) Placement

(B) Diagnostic

(D) Summative

Answer: (C) Formative

55. The research stream of immediate application is

(A) Conceptual research

(B) Action research

(D) Empirical research

Answer: (B) Action research

Instructions: Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60:

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the 'State'. The Indian 'State's' special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which manually adhere in a geographical, economic and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in it traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word 'State' above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, at least before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state 'sovereignty' or of any church-and-state dichotomy.

Modem Indian 'secularism' has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India's famed tolerance (Indian kings to rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More's Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian state?

(A) peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership

(B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economical and political sense

(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups

Answer: (B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economical and political sense

57. The author uses the word 'State' to highlight

(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.

(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.

(D) Dependence of religion

Answer: (B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.

58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian 'secularism'?

(A) No discrimination on religious considerations

(B) Total indifference to religion

(D) Disregard for social law

Answer: (A) No discrimination on religious considerations

59. The basic construction of Thomas More's Utopia was inspired by

(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance

(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers

(D) European perception of Indian State

Answer: (A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance

60. What is the striking feature of modern India?

(A) A replica of Utopian State

(B) Uniform Laws

(D) Absence of Bigotry

Answer: (D) Absence of Bigotry

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UGC NET June 2014 Paper-I

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